Cancel
© 2016 pictureone.ru
card-image
camera

AMT RMA PRACTICE EXAM

Set Details Share
Helpfulness: 0
created 1 year ago by mapodaca11
259 views
show more
1

An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the

hip

2

The kidneys are located behind the

peritoneum,

3

During swallowing, the larynx is covered by the

epiglottis

4

The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is

keratin

5

Where is chyme produced?

stomach

6

Digestion that breaks food into tiny pieces is

mechanical

7

The hormone responsible for ovulation is

LH

8

A patient diagnosed with farsightedness has

hyperopia

9

The mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelid is called

conjunctiva

10

Urine is formed in the

nephron

11

Which of the following constitutes 2%-4% of the WBCs?

Eosinophils

12

The thin membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the white of the eye is the

conjunctiva

13

A doughnut-shaped gland that encircles the urethra is the

prostate gland

14

The urinary bladder is located in the

pelvic cavity

15

When a muscle contracts, it becomes

shorter & thicker

16

Where do you find the pulse from the patient’s dorsalis pedis artery?

top of foot

17

The outer layer of the skin is the

epidermis

18

In what quadrant is the liver located?

upper right

19

What organ is located in the lymphatic system?

spleen

20

A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is

a comminuted fracture

21

Egg cells are produced where?

ovarian follicles

22

The major function of the circulatory system is

transportation

23

The largest bone of the body is the

femur

24

Where do peristaltic waves occur?

esophagus

25

The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the

renal pelvis

26

The function of insulin is to

assist glucose into the cells

27

The internal folds of the stomach are known as

rugae

28

The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?

aorta

29

The site of fertilization is usually the

fallopian tube

30

Muscles are attached to bones by

tendons

31

The combining form "hist/o" means

tissue

32

Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging?

presbyopia

33

The medical term for inflammation of the liver is

hepatits

34

what is the first portion of the small intestine

duodenum

35

The prefix "ad" means

to add to

36

Which term is best described as “destruction by burning”?

electro cauterization

37

The combining form that means "red" is

erythro

38

An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is

ascites

39

In a patient’s progress note you see that the physician has used the term “necrosis” regarding a lesion. The physician is referring to

dead tissue

40

The suffix meaning "inflammation" is

itis

41

The term "myotomy" means incision into

a muscle

42

Inflammation of the salivary gland is known as:

sialadenitis

43

Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils?

tonsillitis

44

The surgical incision into the abdomen is

laparotomy

45

The medical term for indigestion is

dyspepsia

46

“Abnormal widening of the arterial wall that is weak and bulges”, defines the term

aneurysm

47

A small mass of masticated food ready to be swallowed is

bolus

48

Which of the following means pertaining to after meals?

postprandial

49

"Ostomy" is a

suffix.

50

Low blood pressure is

hypotension

51

The medical term for a toothache is

dentalgia

52

Choose the abbreviation that means four times a day.

QID

53

The abbreviation "QID" means

four times a day

54

The inflammation of the pancreas is

pancreatitis

55

What term is best associated with cancer that has spread to other organs of the body?

Metastasis

56

Which one of the following is a physician having a practice limited to the aging population?

gerontologist

57

The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities?

suspected child abuse

58

The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from

civil and criminal liability

59

The Controlled Substances Act is a United States law that regulates controlled drugs. The law is administered by the Drug Enforcement Administration. All of the following are responsibilities of medical assistants in the medical setting when dealing with controlled substances,EXCEPT

prescribing controlled drugs

60

In the absence of the employing physician, a medical assistant determines that a patient needs a prescription drug and dispenses the wrong drug from the physician’s supply the performance of this totally wrongful and unlawful act is known as

malfeasance

61

Translated as “the thing speaks for itself”, which of the following is evidence showing that negligence by the accused person may be reasonably inferred from the nature of the injury occurring to the plaintiff?

Res ipsa loquitur

62

A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the patient’s legal representative with a deeper understanding of the patient’s condition, a full explanation of the plan for treatment, and enough information to decide whether the patient will undergo the treatment or seek an alternative is called what type of consent?

Informed consent

63

The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of

electronic exchange of patient information

64

Medical Practice Acts are laws enacted to

define what is included in the practice of medicine

65

Which of the following terms indicates consent in which there is an understanding of the treatment that will be performed, why it should be performed, any alternative methods of treatment, and the risks and benefits of the treatments discussed?

Informed

66

The physician informs the medical assistant that he or she will no longer treat a patient who refuses to follow his or her medical advice and treatment plan. The procedure that the medical assistant should follow is to

send a letter of formal withdrawal to the patient by certified mail, return receipt requested

67

Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the medical assistant when assisting the physician with a surgical procedure?

Ensuring that there is a signed patient consent form on file

68

Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness to produce records for a trial?

Subpoena duces tecum

69

The statute that defines what is included in the practice of medicine, establishes the requirements for licensure, and establishes the grounds for suspension or revocation of a license is called the

Medical Practice Act

70

An example of a medical assistant illegally practicing medicine is

giving advice on a patient condition.

71

Under this doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment

Respondeat superior

72

Substitution of another surgeon without the patient’s consent when the patient has already received anesthesia and has no idea that a substitution has been made is called

ghost surgery

73

Mrs. Jones is diagnosed with a terminal illness. She has given permission for her husband, Mr. Jones, to have access to her medical information. Dr. Smith informs Mr. Jones that his wife is terminally ill. Mr. Jones does not want Dr. Smith to tell her patient that she is terminally ill. The physician would violate which of the following ethical principles if she does not inform her patient of the correct diagnosis?

Veracity

74

A physician performed plastic surgery on a patient and later published an article about the procedure in a medical journal. A photograph of the surgical site was included. Permission to publish the photograph had not been obtained. This act is an example of

invasion of privacy

75

Which statement best describes the practice known as “fee splitting”?

It is the unethical practice in which physicians are paid for referring patients.

76

If a caring family member asks about a patient’s treatment, the medical assistant should

provide only information that has been authorized by the patient

77

The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called

restating

78

This type of listening is highly recommended for health care providers and patients in communicating needs. It involves participation in a conversation with another by means of repeating words and phrases or giving approving or disapproving nods.

Active listening

79

Psychologist Abraham Maslow created the “Hierarchy of Needs”. Maslow believed that our human needs can be categorized into five levels and that the needs of each level must be satisfied before we can move on to the next. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow’s “Hierarchy of Needs” starting from the bottom to the top?

Physiological needs, Safety and Security, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Self-actualization

80

Positioning or sitting behind a desk communicates the message of

authority.

81

When educating your patient, which of the following is not recommended for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis?

avoid compression stockings

82

With respect to educating patients on the functions of minerals in the body, which combination of mineral to sources is incorrect?

Iron– nuts, whole grains, vegetables, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolks

83

Patient education for minor burn care involves all of the following EXCEPT

Eating a low-calorie, low- protein diet to promote healing

84

Instructing patients in the collection of a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen is especially important in order to avoid contamination. Which of the following is incorrect in patient education?

On the second motion, cleanse directly across the meatus, back-to-front, using another antiseptic wipe

85

Patient education for preventing Lyme disease includes all of the following except

Remove a tick by squeezing or crushing the tick with tweezers

86

Diabetic patient education must be acknowledged and followed by the patient. Which of the following is not recommended for the diabetic patient?

Maintain plasma glucose level between 120 and 200 mg/dL

87

A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called

coordination of benefits

88

The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called

a pre-existing conditions waiver

89

Medicare Part B covers

prescription medical equipment

90

Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim means that the physician is compensated

80% of approved amount

91

The specific amount specified by an insurance plan that the patient must pay toward the charges for professional services rendered is the

copayment.

92

Medicare Part B pays physicians on a fee scale consisting of three parts: 1. Physician’s work. 2. Charge-based professional liability expenses. 3. Charge-based overhead. This fee scale is known as

Resource-based Relative Value Scale (RBRVS

93

Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule?

Capitated

94

A military medical insurance plan that is administered by the government is

TRICARE

95

This insurance covers health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service-connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service-related disabilities.

CHAMPVA

96

In 2006, drug and prescription benefits were added allowing Medicare recipients the option of choosing, at a reduced cost, a plan that pays for prescription drugs with just a small co-payment from the patient. Beneficiaries choose the drug plan and pay a monthly premium. This option is

Medicare Part D

97

A range of usual fees in the same community is the

prevailing fee.

98

A written authorization by the patient giving the insurance company the right to pay the physician directly for billed services is known as the

assignment of Benefits

99

A payment method used by many managed care organizations in which a fixed amount of money is reimbursed to the provider for patients enrolled during a specific period of time, no matter what services are received or how many visits are made

Capitation

100

The routine waiving of co-payments

is against federal guidelines

101

An organization that contracts with the government to handle and mediate insurance claims from the medical facilities, home health agencies, or providers of medical services or supplies.

Fiscal intermediary

102

Which one of the following is an insurance claim processing error?

Using "rule out" diagnosis

103

A letter for statement from the insurance carrier describing what was paid, denied, or reduced in payment. Also contains information about amounts applied to the deductible, the patient’s co-insurance, and the allowed amounts.

. Explanation of benefits (EOB)

104

A person who holds a health benefit plan is a

. subscriber

105

Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physician's office should

refer all inquiries to the collection agency

106

The petty cash fund may be used

for small incidental items

107

Which of the following entries are recorded in the adjustment column?

Insurance write-offs

108

If the total income for one month is $17,500 and the total expenses for the same month are $15,500, the profit and loss statement would show a

net profit of $2,000

109

The name that follows the words "Pay to the order of" on a check is the

payee.

110

For deposit only" is an example of what type of endorsement?

. Restrictive

111

Which one of the following represents the total of all patient outstanding balances owed to the practice?

Accounts receivable

112

A compilation or average of physician fees over a given period is know as

fee profile.

113

The process of proving that a bank statement and checkbook balance and are in agreement is known as

reconciliation

114

The words “for deposit only” specify what type of endorsement?

Restrictive

115

The cost to a physician for the services of a collection agency is usually

a percentage of each amount collected

116

Regulation Z of the Truth in Lending Act is enforced by the Federal Trade Commission and is a part of the Consumer Credit Protection Act. When a physician agrees and accepts payment in installments, the physician must provide a disclosure statement about finance charges even if no finance charges are involved. What is the minimum number of installments in this Regulation?

More than four installments

117

Expenses that will most likely be included in the capital budget for a medical facility are

medical equipment

118

The person who signs his or her name on the back of a check for the purpose of transferring title to another person is the

endorser

119

Consider the legal statement in which a person authorizes another person to act as his or her agent. The authority may be limited to the handling of specific procedures. The person to which authorization is granted is known as the

. power of attorney for healthcare

120

The method used to accommodate appointments for minor emergencies in the physician's office is to

leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule.

121

When an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the

packing slip

122

It is recommneded that a multipurpose ABC fire extinguisher be readily available and prominently mounted in a visible, convenient place in the medical office. All employees must be trained in the use of the fire extinguisher. The proper way to operate a fire extinguisher is to

pull the pin, aim the hose, squeeze the handle, sweep the nozzle

123

Which of the following is the correct way to write the first line of an inside address in a letter to Susan Martin, a pediatrician?

Susan Martin, MD

124

An approach of sensitivity to the individual needs and reactions of patients begins from the initial contact with the medical receptionist to the conclusion of the patient’s treatment. This approach is known as

empathy.

125

A method of prioritizing patients so that the most urgent receive care first is called

triage

126

What information would you need in order to properly matrix the appointment book or electronic medical record?

Days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds

127

Which of the following is the best method of interacting with an angry patient in the reception area?

Invite the patient into a room out of the reception area

128

When a patient cancels his or her appointment or merely does not show up, the correct course of action is to

call the patient and try to reschedule for another time; document the missed appointment in the patient record and in the appointment book or database

129

Which of the following dates is written correctly for inclusion in the heading of a business letter?

July 27, 2011

130

When making travel arrangements for the physician to attend a medical seminar or convention, the medical assistant should provide the physician with details of the entire trip, including dates and times of arrival and departure, flight and hotel confirmation numbers, and other details all in one document. This detailed description is called

an itinerary

131

The medical assistant develops a matrix or a template prior to creating the physician’s schedule in order to

. block out time slots when the physician is not available to see patients

132

Which one of the following represents the statistical characteristics of human populations (as in date of birth, address, telephone number, occupation, place of employment) used especially to identify markets

Demographic

133

When a patient fails to keep an appointment the medical assistant should

document the failed appointment in the patient's chart

134

Which of the following type of magazines or journals should not be in the reception area

Physician's professional journals

135

Medical records in this medical office are filed alphabetically. Arrange the following names in alphabetical order to prepare them for filing. Select the sequence of the numbers correctly that alphabetizes the names
(1) Smith, James
(2) Smithson, Jane
(3) Smithy, J.
(4) Smithe, John

(1), (4), (2), (3

136

Who is the legal owner of the medical record (original hardcopy or electronic medical record)?

The physician or medical facility which initiated and developed the record

137

To prevent back pain or a workplace injury when working with an object, ergonomically, which of the following ergonomic stance is not recommended?

. Keep feet together

138

What are the two most important factors in performing an effective hand wash?

Friction and running warm water

139

What regulatory body is responsible for monitoring the observance of Standard Precautions guidelines

OSHA

140

While Susan is preparing a blood specimen for laboratory analysis, the container tips over and blood spills on the laboratory table. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the spill?

Don personal protective equipment such as gloves, use a cleanup kit, sprinkle congealing powder over the spill, scoop up the spill, place contents in bag, wipe area with germicide, place all contaminated materials in biohazard container.

141

Microorganisms may be transmitted by each of the following EXCEPT

. asepsis

142

According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with

. blood.

143

When performing skin preparation before a surgical procedure, the antiseptic solution or soap should be applied starting at the incision site and using a motion that is

circular starting from the incision area to the outside edges of the area.

144

Cold sterilization is achieved through the use of

chemicals.

145

The autoclave chamber door is slightly opened at the end of the autoclave cycle to

allow the items to dry

146

Sterilization is the

destruction of all microbial life

147

Which one of the following processes is required for surgical instruments and equipment that will come into contact with internal body tissues or cavities that are considered sterile?

. Sterilization

148

The instrument used to view the urinary bladder is

cystscope.

149

A stainless steel instrument with a handle at one end and two prongs at the other end used to test hearing is a

tuning fork

150

What instruments have sharp edges and are used to incise skin and tissue?

Cutting and dissecting instruments

151

What instrument holds open layers of tissue, exposing the areas beneath?

. Retractors

152

The tympanic thermometer is inserted into the

ear

153

Instruments used to take blood pressure are the

sphygmomanometer and stethoscope.

154

What kind of machines do electrocardiograph technicians operate?

EKG

155

A hemostat is used to

control bleeding.

156

Which of the following is a surgical instrument with slender jaws used for grasping blood vessels and establishing homeostasis

Hemostat clamp

157

To obtain the most accurate rate, respirations should be counted for

60 seconds.

158

A marked drop in blood pressure is found with

. shock

159

Normal bacteria that are found in the intestinal tract and are the most common cause of lower-tract urinary infections (due to improper hygiene after bowel movements), are

. E. coli

160

The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is

. radial.

161

Which of the following is not associated with Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus?

Type II

162

The signs and symptoms of IDDM (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus) do not include

weight gain

163

The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of

. 60-80 beats per minute

164

A sudden attack, such as that observed in epilepsy is known as

a seizure

165

The knee-chest position is used for examination of the

rectum.

166

You have just a venipuncture on your patient and the patient says she feels like she is going to faint. Into what position do you quickly place your patient in?

Trendelenburg

167

A patient short of breath should be put into what position on the examination table?

Fowlers

168

Cheyne Stokes describes a

type of respiration.

169

What type of pulse is obtained using a stethoscope?

Apical

170

What blood pressure would be by a hypertensive patient?

140/90

171

Cardinal signs are also known as

blood pressure, temperature, pulse, respirations

172

The "Snellen Chart" is used to test

sight

173

Michelle has an order to administer a TB test to her patient. She knows that the body sites used for an intradermal injection are the

. anterior forearm and the upper back.

174

Sarah knows that legally, all vaccine providers must give patients, their parents, or their legal representatives, the appropriate Vaccine Information Statement (VIS) whenever a vaccination is administered. The required information that must be recorded on the patient's medical record includes the

edition date of the VIS, the date the VIS is provided (i.e., the date of the visit when the vaccine is administered).

175

While administering an intramuscular injection, the medical assistant inadvertently aspirates blood into the syringe. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

. Withdraw the needle completely and start the procedure over

176

A drug used to relieve pain is an

. analgesic

177

Sarah is administering an influenza shot to her patient. She knows that when administering an injection into the deltoid muscle, caution must be taken to avoid the

radial and ulnar nerves

178

For a medication to be maintained at the proper blood level, it must be given

at the right time.

179

The physician orders 1 Gram of a medication for injection. On hand is 0.5 Grams per mL. How many mL will be administered?

2.0 mL

180

Which of the following administration routes will result in the most rapid action of a drug?

Intravenous

181

Electrosurgery is used for

. aspirating tissues or cells

182

What is a fenestrated sterile drape?

A drape that is placed over the patient, with the opening over the area where the surgical procedure will be performed.

183

For minor surgical procedures, acceptable skin cleansing agents include all of the following EXCEPT

acetone

184

Which of the following is a surgery that is used to treat an abscess?

Incision and drainage

185

Instruments required by the physician for a basic suture set-up include

needle holder and scissors

186

Which one of the following is NOT a physical therapy modality

immobilization

187

Sensitivity testing in Microbiology is performed to

check for antibiotic sensitivity to the bacteria found in the specimen

188

Which of these statements is true regarding angioplasty

. Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue

189

Excessive squeezing around a capillary puncture site will cause

dilution of the sample with tissue fluid

190

Which type of bleeding is easiest to control?

Capillary

191

Which one of the following tests identifies the organism associated with a urinary tract infection?

Culture and sensitivity

192

The preanalytical phase of laboratory procedures refers to

the laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing.

193

Staphylococci are the primary causative pathogen for which one of the following diseases?

Acne/boils

194

A urine pregnancy test checks for the presence of

HCG.

195

A normal color of urine is

straw.

196

The "universal donor" has blood type

O -

197

Which one of the following is a highly specific host defense mechanism?

. Immune response

198

Which of the following best represent the major areas of urinalysis?

. physical, chemical, microscopic

199

In electrocardiography, the electrode used as a ground is

. RL

200

The basic EKG has how many leads?

12

201

When preparing a patient for an EKG, leads should be placed

on the intercostal spaces

202

What typically does not cause an artifact in the tracing of an electrocardiogram?

. Relaxed patient

203

What should be done if a person exhibits changing levels of consciousness?

Have the patient lie down

204

What is the first thing you should do if you walk into a room and find a patient collapsed on the floor

Assess the scene before going any further

205

After putting gloves on, what should be done to assist a bleeding victim?

Apply direct pressure to the site

206

When using a fire extinguisher, what does the acronym PASS mean?

Pull, aim, squeeze, and sweep

207

What is the proper treatment for syncope?

. Place the patient in a supine position with the legs elevated

208

A second degree burn would appear as

red, edematous, wet, shiny or blistered.

209

Fire extinguishers must be inspected and recharged, if necessary,

once a year.

210

The first step in controlling bleeding is

direct pressure

211

The outer ear includes the

ear canal

212

A deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to which type of anemia?

Pernicious

213

Which one of the following is the most common blood disorder that may result from a variety of causes?

Anemia

214

he largest glandular organ in the body is the

. liver

215

Sperm and egg cell maturity begin at

puberty

216

The thoracic cavity is lined by the

. pleural membrane.

217

The outermost of the pericardial membranes is the

fibrous pericardium

218

Approximately 60% of the plasma proteins are formed by

albumins.

219

The urinary system consists of

two kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder and the urethra.

220

Digestion DOES NOT involve which organ?

Spleen

221

Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation?

Protection from light

222

Where are the sublingual glands located

Beneath mucous membrane

223

An abnormal scar formation is

keloid

224

Baby teeth are called?

Deciduous

225

A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called

rectocele

226

Which of the following means a physician who specializes in the study of the anus and the rectum?

Proctologist

227

Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

Vitamin C

228

Encephalopathy is defined as

any dysfunction of the brain

229

The study of the stomach and the intestine is

gastroenterology

230

An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is

ascites

231

The Committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association (AMA) has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of negligence

Defamation

232

The patient puts out his or her arm to allow the medical assistant to draw blood. This type of consent is called

express

233

In some states, a minor is legally unable to make treatment decisions with limited exceptions. Under what circumstances would a patient such as Jane Doe, a 16-year-old minor, suffering from cancer, be allowed to refuse continued chemotherapy treatments?

Being an emancipated minor

234

Which of the following terms indicates consent in which there is an understanding of the treatment that will be performed, why it should be performed, any alternative methods of treatment, and the risks and benefits of the treatments discussed?

Informed

235

Which of the following is a legally binding request to provide records or documents to a court that is usually issued to the person considered the custodian of the records?

Subpoena duces tecum

236

Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness to produce records for a trial?

Subpoena duces tecum

237

The provision of medical care to physician's colleagues, their families, or staff free of charge (or at a reduced fee) is called

professional courtesy.

238

Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross’ stages of Death and Dying progress through five stages. Which of the following is the correct order of her Death and Dying stages?

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

239

The avoidance of confronting a personal problem or reality by acting as if the problem or reality never existed is a defense mechanism known as

denial

240

Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction includes all of the following except

feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum

241

A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called

d. coordination of benefits.

242

Medicare patients treated by a non-participating physician

are responsible for a portion of the fee

243

Types of health insurance and plan benefits: This type of benefit covers catastrophic or prolonged illness or injury. This insurance takes over when basic medical, hospitalization, and surgical benefits end.

Major medical

244

Medical sole proprietorship, partnerships, groups, and corporations are encouraged to purchase insurance policies that include benefits for medical expenses payable to individuals who are injured in the insured person’s home, business, or car, without regards to the insured person’s actual legal liability for the accident. This type of insurance is called

liability insurance

245

Traditional health insurance plans that pay for all or a share of the cost of covered services, regardless of which physician, hospital, or other licensed healthcare provider is used. Policyholders and their dependents choose when and where to get healthcare services

Managed care plan

246

An example of a Medicare HCPCS code number is

J0540

247

When reconciling a bank account the "outstanding checks" are those

that have not cleared the bank

248

Things that are owed or debts are called

liabilities.

249

This type of check has a detachable form. The detachable portion is used to itemize or specify the purpose for which the check is drawn and shows discounts and various itemizations. The detachable portion is removed before the check is presented for payment

Voucher check

250

An invoice for treatment of a patient who is now deceased should be mailed to the

executor of estate

251

Which statement below is true with respect to an emancipated minor

An emancipated minor is responsible for his or her own medical bill

252

Employers are required by law to withhold certain amounts from employees’ earnings. These amounts must be reported and forwarded to the IRS to be applied toward payment of income tax. The Income Tax Withholding is also known as

W-4

253

A medical assistant, made an incorrect entry into her patient’s medical record. She understands that corrections in the medical record are made by

drawing a line through the text to be corrected, writing the new information above the old, dating the new entry, and signing it.

254

Medical records in this medical office are filed via terminal digit order. Arrange the following medical record numbers in terminal digit order from the lowest to the highest. Select the correct terminal digit order sequence.
(1) 06 14 06
(2) 06 06 06
(3) 06 05 06
(4) 05 01 06
Choose one answer.

(4), (3), (2), (1)

255

When patients arrive at the physician’s office, medical records should not be found lying on the reception desk in view of patients signing in or approaching the desk. Avoiding this situation prevents violation of regulations established by the

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

256

Laura disinfects the exam tables in between each patient using a 1:10 bleach solution. In order for the process to be effective she must

prepare the solution according to the recommended dilution, store the solution in a closed container to avoid evaporation, change the after the recommended period of expiration.

257

Sterile field rules include all of the following EXCEPT

sterile team members do not need to face each other.

258

The destruction of all microorganisms is essential for surgical asepsis. The method often used in the medical office that completely destroys microorganisms is

sterilization.

259

hen performing medical aseptic handwashing, the hands should be positioned

below the elbows

260

The most effective method of sterilization is

autoclaving

261

The destruction of all microorganisms is known as

sterilization.

262

What is the primary method for sterilizing instruments and equipment?

Autoclave

263

What instrument holds open layers of tissue, exposing the areas beneath?

Retractors

264
card image

The instrument pictured below is

sphygmomanometer

265

Instruments used to take blood pressure are the

sphygmomanometer and stethoscope

266

Forceps are used to

hold tissue

267

Which of the following is a surgical instrument with slender jaws used for grasping blood vessels and establishing homeostasis?

Hemostat clamp

268

A hemostat is used to

control bleeding.

269

When obtaining a patient's blood pressure, the patient's arm should be

at the level of the heart.

270

An afebrile patient is

without fever.

271

An febrile patient is

has a fever

272

The method used to perform a breast examination is

palpation.

273

A patient short of breath should be put into what position on the examination table?

Fowlers

274

The angle for a subcutaneous injection is

45 degrees

275

Cheyne Stokes describes a

type of respiration

276
card image

The position pictured below is the

Sim's.

277

Michelle has an order to administer a TB test to her patient. She knows that the body sites used for an intradermal injection are the

anterior forearm and the upper back

278

A syringe marked with U 100 would be used for administering which of the following?

Insulin

279

Two tablespoons of medication are equal to

30 mL. (1 tablespoon=15mL)

280

Laura’s patient has just been informed that she is pregnant. Laura explains to her patient that she should not take any medications without the knowledge of her physician. Medications considered relatively safe in pregnancy are classified in Food and Drug Administration (FDA) category

A

281

Which of sutures does not require removal from the body?

Catgut

282

Most instruments are classified according to their function, which instrument is classified as a dilating/probing instrument?

specula

283

When preparing a pamphlet for the gastroenterologist’s office regarding IBS you would want to include information regarding the treatment of

chronic constipation and diarrhea.

284

This statement is true regarding angioplasty?

Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue

285

Palpating the venipuncture site

. contributes to the assessment of the size and the depth of the vein

286

A urine specimen collected over a specific period of time for quantitative analysis is

timed

287

The most common blood type is

O+

288

The preanalytical phase of laboratory procedures refers to

the laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing.

289

The "universal donor" has blood type

O-

290

A greenish-brown urine may be indicate of

hepatitis

291

The appropriate first response to a syncope episode is to

place the patient supine with legs elevated

292

If it is necessary to move an unresponsive, adult victim quickly away from a scene unassisted, you should

drag the patient by the heels to safety


Related pages


symptoms of respiratory alkalosis includelung volumes and capacities made easyclock flashcardspics of perpendicular lineswill this cell elongate during mitosiscrest of greater tuberclehow many protons does silicon havehuman anatomy and physiology lab manual mariebdefine hypoxemicangiosperm structuredouble fertilization in flowering plantsstoppage of bloodattached unattached earlobesjcaho prohibited abbreviations3-phenyl-3-pentanolsat words and meaninggeometry vocabulary reviewthe slowest step in the clotting process ischapter 24 section 2 guided reading war in europe answersa sarcomere is the distance between twoantiparallel nature of dnaaortic plexuswhale following mouseimmune system innate and adaptiveurecholine side effectstemperate desert definitionbrunner and suddarth 12th edition table of contentswhat are the steps of meiosisalfred adler key conceptsthe correct sequence for aerobic metabolic breakdown of glucose isbenzaldehyde naohsimple labelled diagram of the heartarmy study guide flash cardsparacrine hormonesmeiosis producesgland surrounding the urethramajor muscles groupsapices of the lungshow many valence electrons are in an atom of sulfurwhat is the purpose cellular respirationheart dissection lab worksheetorgans in abdominopelvic quadrantsessentially immovable jointswordly wise wordscompound statement geometryfree swimming larvaecampbell biology study guidemechanism of osmosisabiotic factors desertmyofibermarrow cavityexistentialism counselingdescription of compact bonebony expansion carried on a narrow necksurfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing byanatomy and physiology chapter 6okazaki fragments functionanthophyta characteristicswhy is gram staining importantdifference between nucleotide and nucleosideinspiratory capacity isdissection of sheep heartis biotin water or fat solubleap bio chapter 11 notesincontinence is the inability to control voluntary micturitionmitosis and meiosis practice testap biology eighth edition campbell reecewhat does hemolyzed specimen meanvocab unit 1 level gwhere does electron transport chain take placechordate species listnervous tissue function and location