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ADDED RMA EXAM REVIEW

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1

IN THE DOCTOR'S OFFICE

THE PATIENT'S BLOOD OXYGEN SATURATION IS MEASURED WITH, PULSE OXIMETER

2

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A SOURCE OF VITAMIN C

CITRUS FRUITS

3

PRINCIPLES OF PROFESSIONAL ETHICS MAY INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT

FINANCIAL CONTROL

4

WHICH TYPE OF DRUG SCHEDULE HAS NO ACCEPTABLE MEDICAL USE

SCHEDULE I

5

A MEDICAL ASSISTANT SCHEDULED TO REMOVE STITCHES FROM A PATIENT'S ARM NOTICED THAT THE AREA WAS RED

SWOLLEN, AND PAINFUL UPON THE SLIGHTEST TOUCH.

6

THE PATIENT REQUESTED TO SEE THE PHYSICIAN AND WAS RELUCTANT TO LET THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT REMOVE THE SUTURES. THE ATTRIBUTE IMPORTANT IN DEALING WITH THIS SITUATION IS FLEXIBILITY

no data

7

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS MEANS "INCISION IN THE MUSCLE

MY/o/TOMY

8

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A WRITTEN DESCRIPTION OF WORK EXPERIENCES

SKILLS, AND EDUCATIONAL BACKGROUND, RESUME

9

WHAT IS THE TERM FOR THE VISUAL EXAMINATION OF THE VAGINA AND CERVIX

COLPOSCOPY

10

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BE AN EXAMPLE OF PERSONAL ACCOUNTABILITY

ADMITTING TO AN ERROR MADE

11

TWO RESCUERS ARE PERFORMING CPR ON A NINE-YEAR-OLD CHILD WHO COLLAPSED AND IS NOT BREATHING. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS SHOULD THE RESCUERS TAKE

ATTACH THE AED AND FOLLOW THE VOICE PROMPTS

12

THE RMA CERIFICATION IS MAINTAINED BY

EARNING 45 CEUs WITHIN THREE YEARS OR 15 CEUs PER YEAR

13

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IDENTIFIES THE COMPONENTS THAT ARE CENTRAL TO SIGMUND FREUD'S THEORIES OF PERSONALITY

ID – EGO- SUPEREGO

14

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PULSES IS AUSCULTATED WITH A STETHOSCOPE

APICAL location Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line, under the nipple )

15

DEMOGRAPHIC INFORMATION TO BE INCLUDED IN THE PATIENT'S RECORD INCLUDES

NAME, ADDRESS, AND TELEPHONE NUMBER

16

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS IS CONSIDERED LEGAL WHEN CONDUCTING A JOB INTERVIEW OF A PERSPECTIVE EMPLOYEE

ARE YOU AUTHORIZED TO WORK IN THE UNITED STATES

17

HOW OFTEN SHOULD QUALITY CONTROL BE PERFORMED FOR LABORATORY PROCEDURES

DAILY

18

IN A NORMAL white BLOOD CELL DIFFERENTIAL WHAT IS THE TOTAL NUMBER OF CELLS COUNTED

100

19

THE BASIC PARTS OF THE COMMUNICATION PROCESS INCLUDE

MESSAGE- SENDER- RECEIVER-CHANNELS- FEEDBACK

20

A CAPILLARY PUNCTURE IS MOST LIKELY TO BE PERFORMED ON THE OUTER EDGES OF THE PLANTAR SURFACE (UNDERSIDE) OF THE HEEL IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PATIENTS

A 10-MONTH-OLD INFANT

21

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ATTRIBUTES REFERS TO THE ABILITY TO UNDERSTAND SOMEONES ELSE'S FEELING OR SITUATIONS

EMPATHY

22

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS DESCRIBES NEARSIGHTEDNESS

MYOPIA

23

THE PROCESS OF CLEANING AND REMOVING DEBRIS FROM INSTRUMENTS IS KNOWN AS

SANITIZATION

24

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE BEST SOURCE OF FIBER

RAW VEGETABLES

25

A CLEAR LIQUID DIET CONSISTS OF ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT

MILK

26

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING MAY INTERFERE WITH IMPARTIALITY OF THE TREATMENT OF PATIENTS EXCEPT

DIPLOMACY a skill in managing negotiations handling people

27

DOSAGES FOR CHILDREN ARE MOST FREQUENTLY CALCULATED ACCORDING TO BODY WEIGHT

body weight method ( kgx mg )

28

THE STUDY OF BODY LANGUAGE IS CALLED

KINESIOLOGY

29

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS MEANS "INFLAMMATION OF A VEIN"?

PHLEBITIS

30

A PROCEDURE TO SCREEN FOR BREAST CANCER IS KNOWN AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING

MAMMOGRAPHY

31

BEFORE TRANSFERRING A CALL TO ANOTHER EXTENSION

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MOST APPROPRIATE FOR THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT TO DO, GIVE THE PATIENT THE EXTENSION NUMBER TO WHICH HE OR SHE IS BEING TRANSFERRED IN CASE THE PHONE GETS DISCONNECTED

32

INCOMING CALLS SHOULD BE ANSWERED

IDEALLY BY THE FIRST RING AND DEFINITELY BY THE THIRD RING

33

WHEN A RESPONSIVE ADULT AGREES TO RECEIVE FIRST AID CARE

IT IS KNOWN AS, EXPRESSED CONSENT

34

WHEN RECEIVING A CALL FROM AN ANGRY PATIENT

THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT SHOULD, STAY CALM AND LISTEN TO THE PATIENT

35

SCREENING OR TRIAGING INCOMING CALLS IS

A METHOD OF PRIORITIZING THE URGENCY OF CALLS

36

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INCLUDED IN A PATIENT'S VITAL SIGNS

RESPIRATION RATE

37

WHEN COMMUNICATING WITH A HEAR-IMPAIRED PATIENT

THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT SHOULD DO ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT, TAPE ALL CONVERSATIONS FOR LATER REVIEW BY THE PATIENT

38

THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT IS PERFORMING A VENIPUNCTURE AND HAS JUST FILLED THE LAST SPECIMEN TUBE. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT DO BEFORE WITHDRAWING THE NEEDLE

RELEASE THE TOURNIQUET

39

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ABOUT TREATING CHILDREN ARE TRUE EXCEPT

CHILDREN SHOULD NOT BE TOLD THE TRUTH ABOUT A PROCEDURE TO BE DONE BECAUSE IT MAY FRIGHTEN THEM

40

WHEN COMMUNICATING WITH AN ILLITERATE PATIENT

THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT MAY, USE ORAL EXPLANATIONS AND DIRECTIONS

41

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BEST DESCRIBES THE location OF HYPOCHONDRIAC REGION OF THE BODY

BELOW THE RIBS

42

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TECHNIQUES IS USED TO PROTECT THE PATIENT FROM EXPOSURE TO OUTSIDE PATHOGENS DURING MINOR SURGERY

ASEPSIS

43

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANIZATIONS DEVELOPED THE GUIDELINES FOR STANDARD PRECAUTIONS

CDC CENTERS FOR DISEASE CONTROL AND PREVENTION

44

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUMENTS IS USED TO LOOK INTO THE EARS

OTOSCOPE

45

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING VITAMINS AIDS IN BLOOD CLOTTING

VITAMIN K

46

EVALUATING THE EFFECTIVENESS OF COMMUNICATION MAY BE DONE BY

USING FEEDBACK

47

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE SECTION OF A PRESCRIPTION WITH INSTRUCTIONS TO THE PATIENT ON HOW TO TAKE THE PRESCRIBED MEDICATION

SIGNATURE

48

WHICH FORM

WHEN SIGNED BY A PATIENT, ALLOWS A REPRESENTATIVE TO ACT AS A HEALTHCARE AGENT FOR A PATIENT, DURABLE POWER OF ATTORNEY

49

WHICH TERM MEANS "VOMITING BLOOD"

HEMATEMESIS

50

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EVENTS ARE REPORTABLE BY THE PHYSICIAN EXCEPT

HYPERTENSION

51

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COMBINING FORMS IS MATCHED CORRECTLY WITH THE MEANING

PERI=AROUND

52

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE THE IMPROPER RELEASE OF CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION

INVASION OF PRIVACY

53

A MEDICAL ASSISTANT WHO CONTINUALLY ASKS TO LEAVE WORK EARLY FOR PERSONAL REASONS IS LACKING THE QUALITY OF

DEPENDABILITY

54

TRIAGE INVOLVES assigning degrees of urgency to (wounded or ill patients). TRIAGE does not

DIAGNOSE THE PATIENT'S CONDITION

55

An automated external defibrillator (AED) DELIVERS A(N)

ELECTRIC SHOCK

56

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESCRIBES A LAWFUL ACT PERFORMED IMPROPERLY BY A PHYSICIAN

MISFEASANCE

57

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS DESCRIBES UNTRUE ORAL STATEMENTS MADE TO DAMAGE AN INDIVIDUAL'S REPUTATION

SLANDER

58

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUMENTS IS USED BY THE PHYSICIAN TO DETERMINE THE PRESENCE OR ABSENCE OF BOWEL SOUNDS

STETHOSCOPE

59

THE OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH ACT (OSHA) WAS LEGISLATION PASSED TO ENSURE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT

LEGAL ASSISTANCE TO EMPLOYERS BEING SUED

60

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ACCOMMODATIONS MAY BE MADE TO COMPLY WITH THE REGULATIONS RECOMMENDED IN THE AMERICANS WITH DISABILITIES ACT EXCEPT

INQUIRING ABOUT THE MOBILITY DEVICES A PATIENT USES TO SEE WHETHER THE OFFICE CAN ACCOMMODATE THEM

61

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE ABOUT THE MEDICAL PRACTICE ACTS EXCEPT

A MEDICAL ASSISTANT MAY HAVE HIS OR HER LICENSE REVOKED FOR PERFORMING CERTAIN TASKS

62

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONTAINS THE GENETIC MATERIAL OF THE CELL

NUCLEUS a dense organelle present in most eukaryotic cells, typically a single rounded structure bounded by a double membrane, containing the genetic material.

63

THE THREE TYPES OF MUSCLE TISSUE ARE SKELETAL

SMOOTH, AND CARDIAC .......... Smooth muscles are composed of elongated, spindle shaped cells and are commonly involved in involuntary motions., Skeletal muscles allow movement by being attached to bones in the body. Skeletal muscles control voluntary movements ..... The MYOCARDIUM is the name of heart muscle. Cardiac Muscles work involuntarily to pump blood.

64

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESCRIBES THE PURPOSE OF MONITORING AUTOCLAVES WITH SPORE TESTS

TO ENSURE THAT AN AUTOCLAVE IS STERILIZING INSTRUMENTS PROPERLY

65

THE PROCESS BY WHICH NUTRIENTS LEAVE THE GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM AND ENTER THE BLOODSTREAM IS CALLED

ABSORPTION

66

WHEN A BLOOD PRESSURE CUSS IS DEFLATED

THE FIRST TAPPING SOUND IS THE, SYSTOLIC PRESSURE

67

THE GOOD SAMARITAN LAW PROTECTS AN INDIVIDUAL

WHO PERFORMS FIRST AID VOLUNTARILY ON AN INJURED PERSON

68

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CLASSES OF DRUGS IS ADMINISTERED AS A CLEANSING PREPARATION BEFORE PERFORMING A RADIOLOGIC STUDY OF THE INTESTINAL TRACK

CATHARTICS

69

AN ADVANCE DIRECTIVE

ALLOWS AN INDIVIDUAL TO DESCRIBE IN DETAIL WISHES FOR END-OF-LIFE CARE AND ALLOWS A DURABLE POWER OF ATTORNEY FOR HEALTHCARE TO BE SELECTED

70

WHICH SUFFIX MEANS "PAIN"

ALGIA

71

WHICH TERM IS USED TO MEAN ORDERING AN INDIVIDUAL TO APPEAR IN COURT AND TO BRING ANY PAPERS

BOOKS, OR INFORMATION NECESSARY TO EXPLAIN AN ISSUE, SUBPOENA DUCES TECUM

72

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE STUDY AND TREATMENT OF THE COLON

RECTUM, AND ANUS, PROCTOLOGY

73

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION ABOUT THE W-4 FORM USED BY THE INTERNAL REVENUE SERVICE IS TRUE EXCEPT

IT MAY BE CHANGED ONLY ONCE A YEAR

74

WHICH IS NOT AN APPROVED RIGHT IN THE PATIENT'S BILL OF RIGHTS

RIGHT TO REFUNDS FOR COMPLICATIONS THAT ARISE DURING HOSPITAL STAYS

75

THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT IS ATTENDING TO A RESPONSIVE CHILD INJURED IN A BICYCLE ACCIDENT. HE HAS A SHARP PAIN AND SWELLING IN THE RIGHT LEG

WHICH LOOKS STRANGELY BENT. Emergency medical service HAS BEEN ALERTED. THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT SHOULD, MANUALLY STABILIZE THE INJURED LEG

76

TERM DESCRIBES LEGAL TECHNIQUES USED TO RESOLVE DISPUTES BETWEEN PARTIES

SUCH AS A PHYSICIAN AND A PATIENT, WITHOUT GOING TO COURT IS ARBITRATION, Arbitration is the submission of a dispute to one or more impartial persons for a final and binding decision, known as an "award."

77

CONTRIBUTORY NEGLIGENCE

TRIES TO SHOW THAT THE PLAINTIFF (PATIENT) IS PARTIALLY RESPONSIBLE FOR THE INJURY OR COMPLICATION

78

A PATIENT COMES TO THE OFFICE AND SAYS "I HAVE PAIN IN THE RIGHT LOWER SIDE OF MY ABDOMEN" THIS AN EXAMPLE OF WHICH COMPONENT OF THE PATIENT'S HISTORY

CHIEF COMPLAINT

79

DURING A SPIROMETERY

HOW MANY GOOD EFFORTS AT INHALING DEEPLY AND EXHALING MUST A PATIENT MAKE TO ENSURE AN ACCURATE MEASUREMENT, THREE

80

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A SCREENING TEST FOR TUBERCULOSIS

The tuberculosis (TB) skin test sometimescalled a "Mantoux" is a simple, harmless way is the same PPD test

81

to find out if you have latent TB infection.

no data

82

AN EXAMPLE OF AN EMANCIPATED MINOR IS

A 17-YEAR-OLD MARRIED FEMALE

83

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE TECHNIQUES FOR ACTIVE LISTENING EXCEPT

STATING OPINIONS AND INTERJECTING QUESTIONS TO ENSURE CLEAR UNDERSTANDING OF THE MESSAGE

84

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS MEANS "NOSEBLEED"

EPISTAXIS

85

DYSMENORRHEA MEANS

PAIN DURING MENSTRUATION / PERIODS

86

A HEALTHCARE PROFESSIONAL SHOULD WEAR A FACE SHIELD FOR PROTECTION WHEN PERFORMING WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TASKS

INOCULATING A CULTURE PLATE

87

EATING CONTAMINATED FOOD IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LINKS IN THE CHAIN OF INFECTION

PORTAL OF ENTRY

88

A PATIENT WITH HIGH CHOLESTEROL SHOULD BE INSTRUCTED TO AVOID INTAKE OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING

RED MEAT

89

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING THERMOMETERS WOULD BE USED WHEN TAKING A TEMPERATURE VIA THE EAR CANAL

TYMPANIC

90

WORKERS' COMPENSATION IS A LAW THAT COVERS ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT

AN EMPLOYEE WHO SUFFERS FROM LUNG DAMAGE BECAUSE OF PROLONGED EXPOSURE TO HAZARDOUS CHEMICAL WHILE REMODELING HIS OR HER HOME

91

THE MOST APPROPRIATE STEP IMMEDIATELY AFTER ADMINISTERING A SUBCUTANEOUS INJECTION IS TO

MASSAGE THE INJECTION SITE

92

WHICH TYPE OF LETTER FORMATTING ALIGNS ALL LINES WITH THE LEFT MARGIN OF THE PAPER EXCEPT FOR THE DATE LINE COMPLIMENTARY CLOSING LINE

AND SIGNATURE LINE?, MODIFIED BLOCK

93

WHICH SUFFIX MEANS "FIXATION"

PEXY

94

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ITEMS WOULD NOT BE INCLUDED WHEN PREPARING MINUTES OF A MEETING

SCHEDULE OF ALL PAST AND FUTURE MEETINGS

95

THE ROOT WORD ENTER REFERS TO WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING

INTESTINES

96

DATA PROCESSING INVOLVES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT

REPAIRING COMPUTER EQUIPMENT

97

WHICH PART OF THE COMPUTER IS RESPONSIBLE FOR ALLOWING THE COMPUTER TO PERFORM ALL OPERATIONS

CENTRAL PROCESSING UNIT

98

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE UNIVERSAL SIGN THAT A PERSON IS CHOKING

CLUTCHING THE NECK

99

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE ABBREVIATION FOR THE MEDICAL TERM FOR A STROKE CVA cerebrovascular accident Is

Damage to the brain from interruption of its blood supply.

100

DATA STORAGE DEVICES INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT

CPU

101

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ABOUT COMPUTER SOFTWARE ARE TRUE EXCEPT

COMPUTER SOFTWARE CONSISTS OF A MODEM AND A PRINTER

102

THE CIRCUMFERENCE OF THE HEAD SHOULD BE MEASURED DURING REGULAR CHECKUPS UNTIL A

PEDIATRIC PATIENT REACHES WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING AGES, 36 MONTHS

103

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN ADVANTAGE OF THE ELECTRONIC MEDICAL RECORD (EMR)

AVAILABLE QUICKLY IN EMERGENCY SITUATIONS

104

BEFORE DRAWING BLOOD FOR A LIPID PROFILE

THE PATIENT MUST BE INSTRUCTED TO FAST FOR HOW MANY HOURS BEFORE THE TEST, 12 TO 14

105

A PAPER MEDICAL RECORD SHOULD BE CORRECTED BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING METHODS

DRAW A SINGLE LINE THROUGH THE ERROR WITH RED INK, WRITE "CORR" WRITE THE CORRECTION, INITIAL, AND DATE

106

ONE CONCEPT THAT IS CENTRAL IN COGNITIVE THEORY IS

IRRATIONAL BELIEFS

107

IN A FILING SYSTEM THE RELEASE MARK

INDICATES, USUALLY BY THE PHYSICIAN'S INITIALS OR SIGNATURE THAT THE ITEM HAS BEEN SEEN AND READ BY THE PHYSICIAN AND IS READY TO FILE

108

THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM IS RESPONSBILE FOR

REGULATING THE BODY'S METABOLIC ACTIVITIES

109

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE ABNORMAL OUTWARD CURVATURE OF THE SPINE

KYPHOSIS

110

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WORDS OR PHRASES MEANS "ALL OF THE FACTORS REQUIRED FOR INFECTIOUS DISEASE TO SPREAD"

CHAIN OF INFECTION

111

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT CONSIDERED APPROPRIATE BARRIER PROTECTION

PRESCRIPTION EYEGLASSES

112

THE PRIMARY SOURCE OF ENERGY IN FOOD COMES FROM WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING

CARBOHYDRATES

113

KNOWING HOW TO INDEX

OR ORDER, NAMES IS NECESSARY IN DECIDING WHERE TO PLACE A FILE IN AN ALPHABETICAL FILING SYSTEM. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NAMES IN INDEXED CORRECTLY, ARNOLD J. SMITH-JONES: SMITHJONES ARNOLD J.

114

LIDOCAINE AND PROCAINE ARE EXAMPLES OF

ANESTHETICS

115

WHICH TERM REFERS TO A RECORD OF PICTURE OF A BLOOD VESSEL

ANGIOGRAM An angiogram is an X-ray test that uses a special dye and camera (fluoroscopy) to take pictures of the blood flow in an artery

116

THE ADVANTAGES OF POSTAGE METERS INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT THAT THEY

ARE DISPOSABLE

117

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS REFERS TO THE CESSATION OF MENSTRUATION

MENOPAUSE is A natural decline in reproductive hormones when a woman reaches her 40s or 50s.

118

NOTATIONS ON ENVELOPES SUCH AS "SPECIAL DELIVERY" OR "CERTIFIED" WOULD BE TYPED

DIRECTLY BELOW THE STAMP

119

CHARACTERISITICS OF A FIRST-DEGREE BURN INCLUDE

REDDENED SKIN

120

ALL OF THE STATEMENTS ABOUT SPECIAL DELIVERY MAIL ARE TRUE EXCEPT

IT OFFERS PROOF OF DELIVERY

121

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES SHOULD BE USED WHEN A LETTER ADDRESSED TO ANOTHER MEDICAL OFFICE IS OPENED IN ERROR

RESEAL THE ENVELOPE WRITE "OPENED IN ERROR" AND THEN MAIL IT AGAIN

122

THE LITHOTOMY POSITION IS USED FOR PATIENTS IN WHICH CIRCUMSTANCE

NEEDING A CERVICAL EXAM The position is perhaps most recognizable as the 'often used' position for childbirth: the patient is laid on the back with knees bent, positioned above the hips

123

THE APPROVED USPS STATE ABBREVIATION FOR MINNESOTA IS

MN

124

TEST FOR OCCULT BLOOD IN THE STOOL SHOULD BE PERFORMED AFTER A PATIENT HAS BEEN ON A THREE-DAY DIET THAT IS FREE FROM WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING

RED MEAT

125

IN WHICH MANNER IS A LETTER TO BE HANDLED WHEN IT WILL BE MAILED IN A WINDOW ENVELOPE

THE LETTER IS FOLDED IN THIRDS BY FAN FOLDING THE LETTER WITH THE NAME AND ADDRESS FITTING INTO THE WINDOW

126

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SITUATIONS SHOULD BE RECORDED IN THE PATIENT'S MEDICAL RECORD

AN ESTABLISHED PATIENT CANCELS AN APPOINTMENT

127

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE LARGEST ORGAN IN THE BODY

SKIN

128

ANATOMY IS THE STUDY OF THE

STRUCTURES OF THE BODY

129

EACH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A METHOD OF STERILIZATION TO ACHIEVE SURGICAL ASEPSIS EXCEPT

MICROWAVING

130

PATIENTS THAT NEED TO FOLLOW A LOW-SODIUM DIET INCLUDE ALL THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT

A PATIENT WITH DIABETES

131

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BE APPROPRIATE WHEN SETTING UP THE MATRIXS IN AN APPOINTMENT BOOK

PLACING AN "X" THROUGH VACATION DAYS IN PENCIL

132

THE PHYSICIAN ORDERS A BUCCAL MEDICATION. THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT SHOULD INSTRUCT THE PATIENT TO

PLACE THE MEDICATION BETWEEN THE LOWER TEETH AND CHEEK These medications can come in the form of tablets, films, or sprays.

133

THE TYPE OF SCHEDULING STYLE THAT ASSIGNS A SPECIFIC TIME FOR EACH PATIENT THROUGHOUT THE DAY IS CALLED

STREAM

134

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SUFFIXES MEANS "SWALLOWING"

PHAGIA

135

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A GOVERNMENT-SPONSORED HEALTHCARE INSURANCE PLAN

BLUE CROSS/BLUE SHIELD

136

IF A PROVIDER ACCEPTS ASSIGNMENT ON A MEDICARE CLAIM

THIS MEANS THAT, THE INSURANCE PAYMENT WILL BE SENT TO THE MEDICAL OFFICE

137

COORDINATION OF BENEFITS (COB) IS USED BY INSURANCE CARRIERS

TO AVOID DUPLICATION OF PAYMENTS FOR THE SAME SERVICE OR PROCEDURE

138

WHEN RENDERING FIRST AID TO A CHOKING INFANT

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING MAY BE PERFORMED EXCEPT, ABDOMINAL THRUSTS

139

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHECKS HAS A STUB ATTACHED TO THE CHECK FOR RECORDING INFORMATION ABOUT THE TRANSACTION

VOUCHER CHECK

140

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHECKS IS THE PATIENT'S PERSONAL CHECK

no data

141

WHAT PIECE OF EQUIPMENT IS HELPFUL DURING A PHYSICAL EXAM TO DETERMINE HEARING

TUNING FORK for The Weber test The test is named after Ernst Heinrich Weber

142

IF THE PATIENT HAS A HISTORY OF RETURNED CHECKS FOR NON-SUFFICIENT FUNDS

THE MEDICAL ASSISTNAT MAY ACCEPT ALL OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF CHECKS EXCEPT, PERSONAL CHECK

143

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MOST APPROPRIATE METHOD TO OBTAIN A SPUTUM SPECIMENT

HAVE THE PATIENT COUGH DEEPLY AND EXPEL THE MATERIAL INTO A STERILE CONTAINER

144

INSURANCE POLICIES THAT REQUIRE POLICY HOLDERS TO SEEK MEDICAL CARE FROM PREFERRED PROVIDERS ONLY ARE CALLED

MANAGED CARE POLICIES

145

POLICIES THAT ARE SUPPLEMENTARY TO MEDICARE INSURANCE ARE KNOWN AS

MEDIGAP POLICIES

146

EPITHELIAL TISSUE COVERS ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT CARTILAGE

Epithelial tissue-covers surfaces lines cavities forms glands.

147

WHAT TERM INDICATES A HOLD IN THE LINING OF THE STOMACH

PEPTIC ULCER

148

Peptic ulcer disease refers to painful sores or ulcers in the lining of the stomach or first part of the small intestine

called the duodenum

149

MEDICARE CLAIMS ARE HANDLED IN THE STATE OR REGION BY

A FISCAL INTERMEDIARY A fiscal intermediary is a private company contracted by Medicare to pay bills - such as hospital expenses - for Medicare Part A and Part B.

150

AN IDIOSYNCRATIC EFFECT IS

any unintended effect on the body as a result of the use of therapeutic drugs, drugs of abuse, or the interaction of two or more pharmacologically active agents.

151

WHY IS IT IMPORTANT FOR THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT TO UNDERSTAND MEDICAL INSURANCE CODING

INSURANCE CODING IS NEEDED TO FILE PATIENT CLAIMS IN ORDER TO RECEIVE REIMBURSEMENT FROM INSURANCE CARRIERS

152

THE MEDICAL SPECIALTY STUDY OF AND TREATMENT OF DISEASES AND DISORDERS OR THE URINARY TRACT IS

UROLOGY

153

THE International Classification of Diseases ICD-9-CM CODING BOOK WAS COMPILED BY

World Health Organization W.H.O

154

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS REQUIRED INSURANCE FORM FOR GOVERNMENT-RUN PROGRAMS SUCH AS MEDICARE AND MEDICAID

CMS 1500 The CMS-1500 form is the official standard Medicare and Medicaid health insurance claim form required by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services

155

WHICH PREFIX MEANS "INSIDE"

ENDO

156

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE REASONS THAT AN INSURANCE CARRIER MAY REJECT A CLAIM EXCEPT

THE FIVE-DIGIT CPT CODE MATCHES THE APPROPRIATE DIAGNOSIS

157

THE FIRST AID PRIORITY FOR AN INJURED VICTIM IS TO

MAKE SURE A PATENT, OR CLEARED, AIRWAY EXISTS

158

THE MOST COMMON INSURANCE FORM USED IN THE MEDICAL OFFICE IS

CMS 1500

159

OF THE FOLLOWING CHOICES

WHICH IS THE MOST IMPORTANT POINT TO REMEMBER WHEN COMPLETING AN INSURANCE CLAIM FORM, TO CHECK EACH CARRIER'S REGULATIONS

160

MEASURING THE CIRCUMFERENCE OF AN INFANT'S HEAD IS AN EXAMPLE OF

MENSURATION : Measurement; Theory of measurement

161

WHICH ITEM MAY BE USED TO CHECK A PATIENT'S INSURANCE ELIGIBILITY

A P O S DEVICE A point-of-sale (PoS) terminal is an electronic device that is used for verifying and processing credit card transactions.

162

The Life Span of a Human Red Blood Cell is

120 DAYS

163

COLLECTION OF FEES WHEN A PATIENT HAS DIED MAY BE DIRECTED TO

THE EXECUTOR OF THE ESTATE

164

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BODY FATS IS PROTECTIVE AGAINST CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASE

HIGH-DENSITY LIPOPROTEIN (HDL)

165

A STATEMENT FOR AN OVERDUE BILL SHOULD NO LONGER BE SENT TO A PATIENT WHEN THE PATIENT

DECLARES BANKRUPTCY

166

THE INGUINAL REGION IS

LOWER LATERAL GROIN REGION located on the lower portion of the anterior abdominal wall, with the thigh inferiorly, the pubic tubercle medially and the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)

167

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WILL RESULT IF A PHYSICIAN FAILS TO ASSIGN A DIAGNOSTIC CODE FOR AN INSURANCE CLAIM

THE INSURANCE CLAIM WILL BE REJECTED

168

CALCULATE THE FOLLOWING DRUG DOSGE: THE PHYSICIAN ORDERS 750 MILLIGRAMS OF CIPROFLOXACIN (CIPRO). THE LABEL OF THE BOTTLE IN THE OFFICE SAYS 250 MILLIGRAMS PER TABLET

THREE TABLETS

169

THE COMBINING FORM P U L M O N O REFERS TO THE

LUNGS

170

AN ASSIGNMENT OF BENEFITS SIGNATURE BY THE PATIENT GIVES THE INSURANCE COMPANY AUTHORIZATION TO DO WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

PAY THE BENEFITS DIRECTLY TO THE PHYSICIAN

171

A PARENTERAL DRUG IS

INJECTED / Taken into the body or administered in a manner other than through the digestive tract, as by intravenous or intramuscular injection.

172

WHEN A NEW PATIENT CLAIMS COVERAGE UDNER MEDICARE

THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT IN A MEDICAL OFFICE SHOULD CHECK THE PATIENT'S MEDICARE CARD TO BE SURE THAT IT INCLUDES, PART B

173

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS MEANS "ABNORMAL INFLAMMATION OF THE LIVER"

hepatitis

174

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT ARE TRUE FOR THE UNIFORM ANATOMICAL GIFT LAW EXECPT

ALL ORGANS--REGARDLESS OF THEIR CONDITION--MAY BE DONATED

175

IN HUMAN BEHAVIOR

DEFENSE MECHANISMS INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT, SUBSTITUTION

176

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A PROPER TECHNIQUE FOR DISPOSING OF BIO-HAZARDOUS WASTE

PLACING CONTAMINATED GLOVES IN A PLASTIC BIOHAZARD BAG

177

THE YEARLY AMOUNT A PATIENT MUST PAY BEFORE AN INSURANCE CARRIE REIMBURSES MEDICAL EXPENSES IS CALLED A

DEDUCTIBLE

178

WHEN A PATIENT IS SUFFERING FROM INSULIN SHOCK ADMINISTER SUGAR / Call 911

particularly if the person is unconscious., Get sugar into the body immediately, as outlined above. Administer an injection of glucagon if the person is unconscious, if you have it. If you don't have glucagon, emergency personnel will have some. Do not give an unconscious person something to swallow as they may choke on it.

179

THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE THE SHARING OF MEDICAL EXPENSES BETWEEN THE PATIENT AND THE INSURANCE CARRIER WITH A PATIENT PAYING A PERCENTAGE OF THE BILL (USUALLY A SPLIT OF 80% INSURANCE AND 20% PATIENT) IS CALLED

A CO-PAY

180

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT ARE TRUE FOR THE UNIFORM ANATOMICAL GIFT LAW EXECPT

ALL ORGANS--REGARDLESS OF THEIR CONDITION--MAY BE DONATED

181

IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING POSITIONS SHOULD THE PATIENT BE PLACED FOR AN ABDOMINAL EXAMINATION

SUPINE

182

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MEDICAL TERM FOR BRUISE

CONTUSION

183

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE WAYS FOR A MEDICAL ASSISTANT TO PROTECT CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION ON A COMPUTER FROM UNAUTHORIZED PERSONNEL EXCEPT

SHARE PASSWORD ONLY WITH MEDICAL PERSONNEL

184

WHY WOULD A MEDICAL ASSISTANT USE THE Z-TRACK METHOD TO ADMINISTER A DRUG

THE DRUG NEEDS TO BE DEEP INTRAMUSCULAR (IM) AND CAN STAIN OR IRRITATE THE SUBCUTANEOUS TISSUE

185

THE PEGBOARD SYSTEM IS ALSO REFERRED TO AS THE

WRITE-IT-ONCE, OR ONE-WRITE, SYSTEM

186

A MINOR WOUND INCLUDES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT

OPEN FRACTURE

187

AGING OF ACCOUNTS SHOULD BE DONE FOR WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REASONS

TO DETERMINE THE AMOUNT A PATIENT OWES ON A BILL AND FOR HOW LONG

188

THE PREFIX TACHY MEANS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING

FAST

189

THE COMBINING FORM P U L M O N O REFERS TO THE

LUNGS

190

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESCRIBES THE ANTAGONISM EFFECT

TWO DRUGS WORKING IN OPPOSITION TO EACH OTHER / antagonism is a phenomenon wherein two or more agents in combination have an overall effect that is less than the sum of their individual effects.

191

THE AMOUNT OF AIR REMAINING IN THE LUNGS AFTER NORMAL EXPIRATION IS CALLED THE

FUNCTIONAL RESIDUAL CAPACITY

192

HOW OFTEN SHOULD EQUIPMENT AND INSTRUMENTS BE CHECKED TO ENSURE THAT THEY ARE

WORKING PROPERLY, DAILY

193

WHEN A PHYSICIAN ORDERS NEBULIZER TREATMENT

THE ADMINISTRATION OF THE DRUG IS THROUGH WHICH PROCESS OR ROUTE, INHALATION

194

ONE OF THE PRIMARY FUNCTIONS OF VITAMIN D IS TO

SUPPORT BONE DEVELOPMENT

195

IF AN ECG RECORDING APPEARS AS A SERIES OF SMALL UNIFORM SPIKES IN THE BASELINE

THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT SHOULD, CHECK FOR NEARBY ELECTRIC APPLIANCES

196

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PRACTICES ENSURES THE MOST EFFECTIVE RESTOCKING OF SUPPLIES

KEEPING A LIST OF INVENTORY AND NOTING DIMINISHING SUPPLIES

197

LEAD I OF THE ELECTROCARDIOGRAPH TRANSMITS AND RECORDS ELECTRICAL ACTIVITY BETWEEN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LIMBS

RIGHT ARM AND LEFT ARM

198

HOW MUCH WATER IS RECOMMENDED TO BE CONSUMED IN A 24-HOUR PERIOD

EIGHT EIGHT-OUNCE GLASSES

199

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS USED IN THE AUTOCLAVE FOR STERILIZATION OF PACKAGE INSTRUMENTS

DISTILLED WATER

200

IN APPROXIMATELY HOW MANY HOURS WILL A PLASTER CAST BE COMPLETELY DRY

72

201

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A DEVICE USED WHEN FULL WEIGHT CANNOT BE PLACED ON AN INJURED AREA

CRUTCHES

202

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN INSTRUMENT THAT MEASURES A PERSON'S ABILITY TO HEAR VARIATIONS IN SOUND INTENSITY AND PITCH

AUDIOMETER

203

A PATIENT STATES THAT HE HAS HAD NO DIGESTIVE PROBLEMS. THIS STATEMENT SHOULD BE RECORDED IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PARTS OF THE PATIENT'S MEDICAL RECORD

REVIEW OF SYSTEMS

204

Element

The simplest form of matter with unique chemical properties. Oxygen, iron, gold, and other elements cannot be broken down into different substances by ordinary chemical means. All matter, living, & nonliving, is composed of elements.

205

Atom

The smallest particle of an element, consisting of electrons surrounding a nucleus composed of protons, neutrons, and other entities.

206

Atomic Number

The number of protons in the nucleus of the atom. The hydrogen atom, for example, has one proton and its atomic number is 1. Carbon has six protons and its atomic number is 6.

207

Atomic Weight

The relative weight of an atom, determined by the number of protons and neutrons together and compared with the standard carbon atom (which had a mass of 12 and an atomic weight of 12).

208

Ionic Bond

A relatively weak attraction formed when one or more electrons are transferred from one atom to another. It is easily disrupted in water.

209

Covalent Bond

The chemical bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons. It is the strongest type of chemical bond.

210

Ion

An atom that has acquired a charge through the gain or loss of one or more electrons.

211

Anion

A negatively charged atom

212

Cation

A positively charged atom.

213

Compound

A molecule composed of two or more different elements, such as Carbon dioxide (CO2).

214

Mixture

A combination of substances that are not chemically combined and can be separated by physical means.

215

Suspension

A mixture in which a solid is distributed but not dissolved. It will separate unless it is shaken.

216

Electrolyte

A substance that permits the transfer of electrons in solution. Common electrolytes include acids, bases, and salts.

217

pH

The number used to indicate the exact strength of an acid or base.

218

pH scale

A scale ranging from 0 - 14

219

Acids

A substance with a pH less than 7.0 that ionizes in water to release hydrogen ions. B/c a hydrogen ion consists of a proton, an acid is referred to as a hydrogen ion donor or a protein donor.

220

Base

A substance with a pH greater than 7.0. It is referred to as a hydrogen ion acceptor or a proton acceptor. Bases contain higher concentration of hydroxyl ions (OH-), whereas acids contain higher concentrations of hydrogen ions (H+).

221

Buffer

A substance that prevents or reduces changes in pH and counterbalances the addition of an acid or base.

222

Buffer System

A system that uses chemical reactions occurring in the body fluids to maintain a particular pH. The acid-base balance is regulated by two buffer systems in the body: the lungs and the kidneys.

223

ATP

The primary provider of energy for a cell. Adenosine triphosphate.

224

Neutral

A pH between 6.5 and 7.5, which is close to the pH of pure water (7.0).

225

largest bone in the body

femur

226

example of a "ball & socket" joint

hip

227

When a muscle contracts

it becomes......, shorter and thicker

228

Growth hormone is produced in the.......

pituitary gland

229

The function of insulin is to....

assist glucose into the cells

230

The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the....

renal pelvis

231

The kidneys are located behind the.....

peritoneum

232

The site of fertilization is usually the.....

fallopian tube

233

Sperm & Egg cell maturity begin at....

puberty

234

What are the three sections of the small intestine (in order)?

duodenum- jejunum- ileum

235

The internal folds of the stomach are known as....

rugae

236

The vitamin produced by the normal flora of the colon in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need is....

vitamin K

237

A nerve impulse is carried across a synapse by....

neurotransmitter

238

The gray matter on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres is called the....

cerebral cortex

239

During swallowing

the larynx is covered by the...., epiglottis

240

The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the....

nasopharynx

241

The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery....

aorta

242

The outermost of the pericardial membranes is the.....

fibrous pericardium

243

The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is.....

keratin

244

The outer layer of the skin is the....

epidermis

245

The receptors for hearing and equilibrium are located in the....

inner ear

246

The thin membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the white of the eye is the....

conjunctiva

247

The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that is often congenital in origin is....

scoliosis

248

A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is....

comminuted fracture

249

An abnormal scar formation is....

keloid

250

Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation?

protection from light

251

A genetic disorder characterized by the inability of the blood to clot properly is.....

hemophilia

252

Night blindness may be caused by a deficiency of....

vitiamin A

253

deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to which type of anemia

pernicious

254

the most common eye condition associated with aging

presbyopia

255

The combining form that means "red" is....

erythr/o

256

the combining form that means tissue is

hist/o

257

The suffix meaning "inflammation" is...

-itis

258

defined as any dysfunction of the brain

encephalopathy

259

The medical term for inflammation of the liver is

hepatitis

260



no data

261

incision into a muscle

myotomy

262

water soluble vitamins

vitamins B & C

263

means 4 times per day

QID

264

abbreviation for prescription

Rx

265

correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils

tonsillitis

266

A patient's implied consent usually covers

blood test

267

HIPAA requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims

through electronic data exchange

268

The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of

electronic exchange of patient information

269

The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from

Civil and Criminal Liability

270

Medical Practice Acts are

laws enacted to define what is included in the practice of medicine.

271

The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called

restating

272

Positioning or sitting behind a desk communicates the message of

Authority

273

The term "total permanent impairment" means

that the patient is unable to perform previous occupational duties

274

Which is an insurance claim processing error?

Using "rule out" diagnoses

275

A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called

coordination of benefits

276

Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule?

Capitated

277

The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called

A pre-existing conditions waiver

278

Medicare patients treated by a non-participating physician

are responsible for a portion of the fee

279

Medicare Part B covers

prescribed durable medical equipment

280

Workers' Compensation insurance provides benefits for

occupational injuries

281

Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim means that the physician is compensated

80% of the approved amount

282

An example of a Medicare HCPCS code number is

J0540

283

A range of usual fees in the same community is the

prevailing fee

284

The routine waiving of co-payments

is against federal guidelines

285

Claims with a signed assignment of benefits are paid to the

physician

286

The notice sent to the patient showing the amount owed to the physician is called the

itemized statement

287

The cost to a physician for the services of a collection agency is usually

a percentage of each amount collected

288

Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency

the physician's office should, refer all inquiries to the collection agency

289

The final statement for services rendered to a deceased patient should be addressed to the

estate of the deceased

290

When a patient fails to keep an appointment the medical assistant should

document the failed appointment in the patient's chart

291

The method used to accommodate appointments for minor emergencies in the physician's office is to

leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule

292

What represents a successful "trial balance'?

All transactions balance with the end of day journal

293

The petty cash fund may be used

for small incidental items

294

When reconciling a bank account the "outstanding Checks" are those

that have not cleared the bank

295

What is an acceptable patient check

certified

296

What entry is recorded in the adjustment column?

insurance write-offs

297

Summaries identifying which patient accounts are 30 60 90 & 120 days overdue include

age analysis

298

Banking fees will appear on a monthly statement in the form of a

service charge

299

If the total income for one month is $17500 and the total expenses for the same month are $15500 the profit and loss statement would show a

net profit of $2,000

300

To properly void a check write "VOID" across the front and

retain it with canceled checks, in numeric order

301

The thoracic and abdominal cavities of the body are separated by the

diaphragm

302

The main tissue of the outer layer of the skin in

epithelial

303

The glands that are saclike in structure and produce oily secretions that lubricate the skin are

sebaceous

304

The portion of the skeletal bone that manufactures blood cells is the

red bone marrow

305

The structures that attach muscles to bones are

tendons

306

Nerve fibers are insulated and protected by a fatty material called

myelin

307

The function of the lacrimal apparatus is to

produce tears to lubricate the eyes

308

A bone that is part of the pelvic girdle is the

ischium

309

The cellular components of blood include

erythrocytes leukocytes and platelets

310

The chambers of the heart are the

ventricles and atria

311

An organ located in the left upper quadrant is the

spleen

312

An example of active immunity is

producing antibodies as a result of having a disease

313

The structure in the body also known as the voice box is the

larynx

314

The wavelike movement that propels food through the digestive tract is called

peristalsis

315

The process that does not require oxygen for the breakdown of glucose is referred to as being

anaerobic

316

The term that means the body is in a state of equilibrium or balance is

homeostasis

317

The funnel-shaped basin that forms the upper end of the ureter is the

renal pelvis

318

In both males and females

the entire pelvic floor is called the, perineum

319

A pregnancy that develops in a location outside the uterine cavity is referred to as

ectopic

320

Which body system includes the thyroid and pituitary glands?

endocrine

321

The term "inguinal" pertains to what area or structure of the body?

Groin

322

The measure of acidity or alkalinity of a solution is called

pH

323

A term that describes a solution that has the same concentration as cell fluids is

isotonic

324

The fibrous bands that support organs to hold them in place are

fascia

325

The membrane that surrounds the heart is the

pericardium

326

The small tip of cartilage at the lower end of the sternum is the

xiphoid process

327

A major muscle in the body that assists in raising the arm away from the body is the

deltoid

328

Cells that carry or transmit impulses toward the central nervous system are called

afferent neurons

329

The space(s) in the brain where cerebrospinal fluid is formed are the brain

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear colorless body fluid found in the brain and spine. It is produced in the choroid plexuses of the ventricles of the brain

330

Impulses from the receptors for smell are carried to the brain by the

olfactory nerve

331

The hormone that is essential for growth is produced in the

pituitary gland

332

Epicardium and myocardium represent layers of the

heart

333

The blood vessel that brings blood from the head

chest and arms back to the heart is the, superior vena cava

334

What is the proper sequence for blood flow in the body?

Artery-->ateriole-->capillary

335

The condition of inflammation of the lymphatic vessels is called

lymphocytopenia

336

The lymphatic system does not include the following organ hypothalamus

The hypothalamus is a section of the brain responsible for the production of many of the body's essential hormones

337

The process in which white blood cells take in and destroy waste and foreign material is called

phagocytosis

338

The structure common to the respiratory and digestive systems is the

pharynx

339

An accumulation of air in the pleural space that may lead to collapse of the lung is called

pneumothorax

340

The leaf-shaped cartilage that covers the opening of the larynx is the

epiglottis

341

Most of the digestive process occurs in the

small intestine

342

The lining of the stomach has many folds called

rugae

343

The first portion of the small intestine in the

duodenum

344

An accumulation of excessive fluid in the intercellular spaces is called

edema

345

The kidneys are located in the

retroperitoneal space

346

The term hydronephrosis means

distention of the renal pelvis resulting from obstructed flow of urine

347

The sex glands of the male and female reproductive system are the

testes and ovaries

348

The bone that lies between the hip and the knee is the

femur

349

The largest artery in the body is the

abdominal aorta

350

The term that refers to absence of menstrual flow in a woman of reproductive age is

amenorrhea

351

The hormone produced by the embryonic cells of the fetus is

human chorionic gonadotropin hormone

352

A substance necessary for proper formation of a blood clot is

thrombin

353

The left atrioventricular (AV) valve in the heart is also known as the

mitral valve

354

The only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood is the

pulmonary artery

355

A localized dilation resulting from weakness of a blood vessel wall is an

aneurysm

356

An example of a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is

emphysema

357

A portion of the large intestine is the

sigmoid

358

A chronic degenerative disease of the liver is

cirrhosis

359

The tube that permits urine to pass from the bladder to the outside of the body is the

urethra

360

The innermost layer of the uterus is the

endometrium

361

The frontal or coronal plane of the body divides the body into

front and rear

362

The membrane attached to internal organs is the

visceral layer

363

The term that describes a disorder the breaks down tissues in a body system is

degenerative

364

The study of the cause of any disease or of all factors that may be involved in the development of a disease is

etiology

365

The chronic skin condition characterized by a red

flat area covered with silvery scales is, psoriasis

366

Which of the following is not one of the cranial bones?

Frontal- Parietal- Ethmoid- Termporal- Maxilla

367

The bone that is part of the shoulder girdle and is between the sternum and the scapula is the

clavicle

368

The type of muscle responsible for producing peristalsis is

smooth

369

The type of joint motion that allows movement away from the midline of the body such as moving the arms straight out to the sides is

abduction

370

The sympathetic system of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for

dilation of bronchi of the lungs

371

The portion of the brain that aids in the coordination of voluntary muscle action is the

cerebellum

372

Strabismus is a condition of the eye causing

cross-eyed appearance

373

A structure found in the inner ear is the

cochlea

374

The clusters of cells called the islets of Langerhans are located in the

pancreas

375

A goiter is associated with abnormal function of the

thyroid gland

376

The Rh factor in blood is

an antigen that affects a person's blood type

377

The area of the heart that initiates a heartbeat is the

sinoatrial node

378

A heart disease that is present at birth is

congenital heart disease

379

Which blood vessel is proximal to the heart?

ascending aorta

380

Acquired

natural, active immunity is achieved by, contracting the disease

381

The human immunodeficiency virus is the cause of which disease?

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

382

The sac covering the lungs is

the pleural sac

383

A communicable infectious disease of the lungs is

tuberculosis

384

An example of inflammatory bowel disease is

Crohn disease

385

Function of the liver is to

Production of bile Store and release glucose as needed break down fats in the small intestine during digestion. Production of certain proteins for blood plasma. Detoxify harmful substances such as alcohol and certain drugs

386

The fluid contained within the body cells is called

intracellular fluid

387

Two important electrolytes found in the body are

sodium and potassium

388

A condition resulting from renal failure and causing high levels of blood urea nitrogen is

uremia

389

The period of pregnancy is called

gestation

390

The hormone that causes contraction of uterine muscle during labor is

oxytocin

391

An example of exocrine glands are

sebaceous glands

392

The order of the vertebral column from top to bottom is

cervical- thoracic- lumbar- sacral- coccyx

393

The muscle located on the anterior thigh and that functions to extend the leg is the

quadriceps femoris

394

The artery located in the upper arm is the

brachial artery

395

Any foreign substance that enters the body and induces an immune response is an

antigen

396

The smaller leg bone

lateral to the tibia is the, fibula

397

The small pouch that is the first part of the large intestine is the

cecum

398

The hormone that regulates the amount of water the is eliminated with urine is

ADH anti diuretic hormone

399

An excessive curvature in the thoracic portion of the spinal column

also known as hunchback, is kyphosis

400

Diabetic retinopathy is a result of damage to the

eyes

401

True or False: Type 2 diabetes is non-insulin-dependent diabetes

True

402

What protein is found in the epidermis that makes the skin waterproof?

Keratin

403

What is the most common condition of the eye associated with aging?

Presbyopia

404

What structure is at the neck of the male bladder and surrounds the urethra?

prostate

405

The epigastric anatomical region of the abdomen is located

distal to the sternum

406

Collagen

a substance found in the dermis, is an, fibrous tissue

407

What gland is located on the sides of the vaginal opening and produce mucus?

Bartholin

408

A fracture of the radius characterized by bending of the bone with the skin left intact is referred to as

no data

409

greenstick;

closed

410

Spermatozoa normally fertilize the female ovum in the

fallopian tube

411

The glumerulus is a cluster of blood capillaries found in the

nephron

412

The disorder characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep is

narcolepsy

413

The regulation of body temperature is controlled by the

hypothalamus

414

Which of the following substances is NOT a neurotransmitter? Acetylcholine Norepinephrine Epinephrine or Aldosterone

Aldosterone ..........Aldosterone is a steroid hormone produced by the outer section of the adrenal cortex in the adrenal gland

415

Cranial nerve I

the olfactory nerve, is related to the sense of, smell

416

A blood cell that carries oxygen and has no nucleus is an

erythrocyte

417

During respiration

exhaled air contains primarily, carbon dioxide

418

A condition causing a backflow of stomach acid through an incompetent esophageal sphincter is called

GERD

419

Informed consent requires that the...

information provided is enough for the patient to make an educated decision.

420

Law refers to the...

recognized rule of conduct enforced by a legal authority.

421

The law requires a physician to report to the appropriate authorities...

a person suspected of elderly abuse.

422

Consent for a person's own medical treatment may be given by a...

17-year-old who is in the Navy.

423

A tort is...

a type of civil law.

424

Malfeasance is one form of...

malpractice.

425

A physician may NOT obtain his or her license by...

registration.

426

Advance directives include a...

medical power of attorney.

427

"Respondeat superior" refers to...

a physician's responsibility for the actions of his or her staff.

428

The Good Samaritan Act does not cover a health care provider who...

volunteers to provide first aid at a charitable "fun run".

429

A physician who accepts payment from another physician for the referral of a patient is guilty of...

fee splitting.

430

Failure to act in a manner that a prudent and reasonable person would under similar circumstances is...

negligence.

431

The "Four D's" are used to determine malpractice; what are the "Ds"?

Duty- Derelict- Direct Cause- Damage

432

A minor may not consent for...

sterilization.

433

A communicable disease to be reported to the county health department is...

rubella

434

Medical examiner cases involve...

deaths

435

A situation in which the very nature of the injury implicates malpractice is called...

"res ipsa loquitur"...the thing speaks for itself

436

The strongest mandatory credential regulated by a state to practice a profession is a...

licensure

437

Medical assistants may be...

certified

438

Ethics deal with...

morals

439

The Patient's Bill of Rights includes the right to...

confidentiality

440

THe first medical code of ethics was written by...

Hammurabi

441

A medical assistant publicly criticizes a physician's diagnostic skills. This is an example of...

slander

442

Which of the following conditiond must be reported? Hypertension

Hepatitis B, Hemiplegia, Hemorrhage, or Anemia?, Hepatitis B

443

A court order instructing the physician to report to court at a certain time and date is...

a subpoena

444

A living will is an...

advance directive stating the patient's decisions for medical care before an incapacitating event

445

Dr.Smith is no longer willing to take care of Mr. Watson. If Dr. Smith does not give Mr. Watson proper notification and appropriate time to find a new physician

Dr. Smith is guilty of..., abandonment

446

The patient puts out his or her arm to allow the physician to cleans an abrasion. This type of consent is

implied

447

The physician performs an elective surgical procedure without written consent. The physician is guilty of

battery

448

The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to.

protect health care workers from liability when rendering emergency care

449

A patient is treated for a minor gunshot wound that he states was sustained during a hunting accident. The physician is obligated to report this as part of

public duty

450

A patient calls to make an appointment and states the symptoms for the office visit. The scheduler says

"That sounds like the flu." The health care worker violated the..., scope of practice

451

Mandatory reporting is required in all of the following cases EXCEPT child abuse

unknown cause of death, alcohol abuse, or elder abuse?, Alcohol abuse

452

A form of malpractice is nonfeasance

which means...

453

failure to act when duty is indicated

resulting in or causing harm

454

A physician casts a fracture of the ulna incorrectly. This results in malformation of the arm. The physician could be charged with..

tort

455

The medical office must comply with the regulations and standards of...

OSHA

456

The Joint Commission does not...

set standards and regulations that must be followed by medical offices...

457

The physician's office shares a patient's medical information with an insurance company. The physician's office did not have the patient's written consent. The office is guilty of...

breach of confidentiality

458

A wheelchair patient could not use the medical office restroom because it was too small for the wheelchair. The office is in violation of.

ADA (American's with Disabilities Act)

459

A typical Patient's Bill of Rights includes the right to...

refuse treatment

460

A valid contract must...

be entered into by competent parties

461

The purpose of law is to...

remedy wrongs

462

An expressed contract is...

written

463

Written consent for medical care must be..

voluntary

464

Examples of ethical cases affected by the law are cases involving...

the right to die

465

Ethical issues are addressed in...

professional codes

466

In cases of public safety...

the laws protecting the general population usually take precedence over an individual's rights

467

A medical assistant could be held liable for the actions of...

a coworker

468

A patient outcome resulting from the quality improvement process may be preventing...

illness

469

Giving a patient an injection ordered by the physician is NOT...

risk management

470

The AMA Principles of Medical Ethics require a physcian to...

report other physicians deficient in character or competence

471

What prohibits job discrimination for race

color, religion, sex, or national origin?, EEOC (Equal Employment Opportunity Commission)

472

Employment law is generally considered...

administrative law

473

The purpose of the Red Flags Rule is to...

guard for medical identity theft

474

Informed consent requires that the...

information provided is enough for the patient to make an educated decision.

475

Law refers to the...

recognized rule of conduct enforced by a legal authority.

476

The law requires a physician to report to the appropriate authorities...

a person suspected of elderly abuse.

477

Consent for a person's own medical treatment may be given by a...

17-year-old who is in the Navy.

478

A patient's implied consent usually covers an...

electrocardiogram.

479

A tort is...

a type of civil law.

480

Malfeasance is one form of...

malpractice.

481

A physician may NOT obtain his or her license by...

registration.

482

Advance directives include a...

medical power of attorney.

483

"Respondeat superior" refers to...

a physician's responsibility for the actions of his or her staff.

484

The Good Samaritan Act does not cover a health care provider who...

volunteers to provide first aid at a charitable "fun run".

485

A physician who accepts payment from another physician for the referral of a patient is guilty of...

fee splitting.

486

Failure to act in a manner that a prudent and reasonable person would under similar circumstances is...

negligence.

487

The "Four D's" are used to determine malpractice; what are the "Ds"?

Duty- Derelict- Direct Cause- Damage

488

A minor may not consent for...

sterilization.

489

A communicable disease to be reported to the county health department is...

rubella

490

Medical examiner cases involve...

deaths

491

A situation in which the very nature of the injury implicates malpractice is called...

"res ipsa loquitur"...the thing speaks for itself

492

The strongest mandatory credential regulated by a state to practice a profession is a...

licensure

493

Medical assistants may be...

certified

494

Ethics deal with...

morals

495

The Patient's Bill of Rights includes the right to...

confidentiality

496

THe first medical code of ethics was written by...

Hammurabi

497

A medical assistant publicly criticizes a physician's diagnostic skills. This is an example of...

slander

498

the following condition must be reported

Hepatitis B

499

A court order instructing the physician to report to court at a certain time and date is...

a subpoena

500

A living will is an...

advance directive stating the patient's decisions for medical care before an incapacitating event

501

parasympathetic nervous system

returns the body to normal after a response to stress and maintains normal body functions during ordinary circumstances

502

Anesthesiologist

physician who specialized in administering anesthetic agents before and during surgery

503

Anesthetist

medical professional who specializes in administering anesthesia, but is not a physician

504

Neurologist

physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the nervous system

505

Neurosurgeon

physician who specializes in surgery of the nervous system

506

psychiatrist

Psychologist, specialist who evaluates and treats emotional problems and mental illness; holds an advanced degree, but is not a medical doctor

507

cephalagia

pain in the head

508

headache

common term for cephalagia

509

migraine headache

characterized by throbbing pain on one side of the head; can be preceded by a warning aura

510

warning aura

sensation perceived by the patient that precedes a migraine

511

cluster headaches

intensely painful headaches that affect one side of the head and may be associated with tearing of the eyes and nasal congestion

512

Encephalocele

congenital herniation of brain tissue through a gap in the skull

513

congenital

present at birth

514

Dr.Smith is no longer willing to take care of Mr. Watson. If Dr. Smith does not give Mr. Watson proper notification and appropriate time to find a new physician

Dr. Smith is guilty of..,. abandonment

515

The patient puts out his or her arm to allow the physician to cleans an abrasion. This type of consent is...

implied

516

The physician performs an elective surgical procedure without written consent. The physician is guilty of...

battery

517

The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to...

protect health care workers from liability when rendering emergency care

518

A patient is treated for a minor gunshot wound that he states was sustained during a hunting accident. The physician is obligated to report this as part of...

public duty

519

A patient calls to make na appointment and states the symptoms for the office visit. The scheduler says

"That sounds like the flu." The health care worker violated the..., scope of practice

520

Mandatory reporting is required in all of the following cases EXCEPT? Child abuse

unknown cause of death, alcohol abuse, or elder abuse?, Alcohol abuse

521

A form of malpractice is nonfeasance

which means..., failure to act when duty is indicated, resulting in or causing harm

522

A physician casts a fracture of the ulna incorrectly. This results in malformation of the arm. The physician could be charged with..

Tort....... A wrong that is committed by someone who is legally obligated to provide a certain amount of carefulness in behavior to another and that causes injury

523

The medical office must comply with the regulations and standards of...

OSHA

524

The Joint Commission does not...

set standards and regulations that must be followed by medical offices...

525

The physician's office shares a patient's medical information with an insurance company. The physician's office did not have the patient's written conseny. The office is guilty of...

breach of confidentiality

526

A wheelchair patient could not use the medical office restroom because it was too small for the wheelchair. The office is in violation of...

ADA (American's with Disabilities Act)

527

A typical Patient's Bill of Rights includes the right to...

refuse treatment

528

A valid contract must...

be entered into by competent parties

529

The purpose of law is to...

remedy wrongs

530

An expressed contract is...

written

531

Written consent for medical care must be...

voluntary

532

Examples of ethical cases affected by the law are cases involving...

the right to die

533

Ethical issues are addressed in...

professional codes

534

In cases of public safety...

the laws protecting the general population usually take precedence over an individual's rights

535

A medical assistant could be held liable for the actions of...

a coworker

536

A patient outcome resulting from the quality improvement process may be preventing...

illness

537

Giving a patient an injection ordered by the physician is NOT...

risk management

538

The AMA Principles of Medical Ethics require a physcian to...

report other physicians deficient in character or competence

539

What prohibits job discrimination for race

color, religion, sex, or national origin?, EEOC (Equal Employment Opportunity Commission)

540

Employment law is generally considered...

administrative law

541

The purpose of the Red Flags Rule is to...

guard for medical identity theft

542

Defense mechanisms

are defined as behaviorthat is used to protect the ego from guilt anxiety or loss of esteem.

543

Regression

is an attempt to withdraw from an unpleasant circumstance by retreating to an earlier more secure stage of life.

544

Denial

is refusal to accept painful information that is readily apparent to others.

545

Repression

similar to denial but it is a totally subconscious reaction. In the case of repression the person seems to experience temporary amnesia. It is the mind's way of defending itself from mental trauma by forgetting or wiping things out of the conscious memory

546

Projection

attributing unacceptable desires impulses and thoughts falsely to others to avoid acknowledging they are actually the person's own experiences. It is a means of defending against feelings or urges the person does not want to admit they are experiencing.

547

Sublimation

is the channeling of a socially unacceptable behavior into a socially acceptable behavior. An overly aggressive person directed toplay football to relieve aggression is an example. Constructive behavior is substituted for destructive behavior.

548

Displacement

is the subconscious transfer of unacceptable emotions, thoughts or feelings from one's self to a more acceptable external substitute. A patient who is angry with the provider for some reason slams the door as he or she leaves the clinic.

549

Compensation

is a conscious or subconscious overemphasizing of a characteristic to offset a realor imagined deficiency. This defense mechanism involves substituting strength for a weakness and may be viewed as healthy. An example is the young boy whose physical stature keeps him from being

550

Rationalization

is the mind's way of making unacceptable behavior or events acceptable by devising a rational reason. The purpose of rationalization is to avoid embarrassment or guilt or to avoid obeying a directive

551

Undoing

Undoing is actions designed to make amends or to cancel out inappropriate behavior. Showering the abused person with gifts to compensate for unacceptable actions that took place in the past is an example.

552

High context communication relies on

body language reference to environmental objects and culturally relevant phraseology to communicate an idea

553

Low-context communication

uses few environmental idioms to convey an idea. It relies on explicit and highly detailed language.

554

Screening

a simple process of asking the caller's name and the reason for the call.

555

SOAP/SOAPER means
S
O
A
P
&
E
R

Subjective impressions
Objective clinicaL
Assessment or diagnosisl evidence
Plans for further studies
eDUCATION
RESPONSE TO SEDUCATION

556

POMR means

problem-oriented medical record

557

HIPAA is the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.

The primary goal of the law is to make it easier for people to keep health insurance, protect the confidentiality and security of healthcare information and help the healthcare industry control administrative costs.

558

source-oriented medical record (SOMR) groups information according to its source;

Facilities use this method because it makes different types of information quickly accessible

559

HCPCS (often pronounced hickpicks ) stands for the Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System.

HCPCS code sets are intended to be a uniform, fairly universal form of classifying similar durable medical equipment prosthetics and orthotics

560

The Joint Commission is

a United States-based nonprofit tax-exempt 501 organization that accredits more than 20,000 health care organizations and programs in the United States

561

A goiter can

occur in a gland that is producing too much hormone (hyperthyroidism), too little hormone (hypothyroidism), or the correct amount of hormone (euthyroidism). A goiter indicates there is a condition present which is causing the thyroid to grow abnormally.

562

Chest/precordial leads

V leads or C leads

563

Bipolar leads

I- I-, III lead. Use 2 limb electrodes that record simultaneously. Lead I records the electrical activity between the RA and LA. Lead II is records electrical activity between the RA and LL. Lead III records electrical activity between the LA and LL. Lead II is used as a rhythm strip as it is the best lead to portray the heart.

564

V1

Fourth intercostal space at the right margin of sternum

565

V2

Fourth intercostal space at the left margin of sterum

566

V3 .

under the chest

567

active listening

received message is paraphrased back to the sender to verify the correct message was decoded

568

Bias

slant toward a particular belief

569

body language

nonverbal communication that includes unconscious body movements, gestures, and facial expressions that accompany verbal messages

570

closed questions

questions answered with a yes or no

571

clustering

a grouping together of nonverbal messages into statements or conclusions.

572

compensation

____ is a conscious or subconscious overemphasizing of a characteristic to offset a real or imagined deficiency. involves substituting strength for a weakness and may be viewed as healthy

573

congruency

the verbal message and the nonverbal message must agree

574

cultural brokering

the act of bridging, linking, or mediating between groups or persons through the process of reducing conflict or producing change

575

culture

is a pattern of many concepts, beliefs, values, habits, skills, instruments, and art of a given group of people in a given period.

576

decode

to translate into language thatis easily understood; to interpret

577

defense mechanism

behavior that is used to protect the ego from guilt, anxiety, shame, or loss of esteem

578

denial

refusal to accept painful information that is readily apparent to others.

579

displacement

displacing negative feelings onto something or someone else with no significance to the situation

580

encoding

creating a message to be sent

581

hierarchy of needs

needs that are arranged in a specific order or rank; sequential arrangement. associated with Abraham Maslow

582

high-context communication

relies on body language, reference to environmental objects, and culturally relevant phraseology to communicate an idea. is indirect and seems to take forever to reach a conclusion. often thought of as mentally slow or uneducated

583

indirect statements

means of eliciting a response from a patient by turning a question into a statement of interest

584

interview techniques

methods of encouraging the best communication between themselves and the patient.

585

kinesics

study of body language

586

low-context communication

uses few environmental idioms to convey an idea. it relies on explicit and highly detailed language. it is direct and in your face. often thought of as being rude or arrogant.

587

masking

attempt to conceal or repress true feelings or the message

588

open-ended questions

questions that encourage verbalization and response; questions that seek a response beyond a simple yes or no.

589

perception

conscious awareness of one's own feelings and the feelings of others

590

prejudice

opinion or judgment that is formed before all the facts are known. is a preconceived and unfavorable concept.

591

rationalization

is the mind's way of making unacceptable behavior or events acceptable by devising a rational reason. The purpose is to avoid embarrassment or guilt or to avoid obeying a directive.

592

regression

an attempt to withdraw from an unpleasant circumstance by retreating to an earlier, more secure stage of life.

593

repression

coping with an overwhelming situation by temporarily forgetting it; temporary amnesia

594

roadblocks

verbal or nonverbal messages that block communication

595

sublimation

redirecting a socially unacceptable impulse into one that is socially acceptable

596

therapeutic communication

it introduces an element of empathy into what can be a traumatic experience for the patient and uses specific and well-defined professional skills.

597

time focus

defines the period of time that is important and to which an individual's actions are directed or oriented

598

undoing

actions designed to make amends or to cancel out inappropriate behavior

599

burnout

a state of fatigue or frustration brought about by a devotion to a cause, a way of life, or a relationship that failed to produce the expected reward

600

goal

result or achievement toward which effort is directed

601

inner-directed people

people who decide for themselves what they want to do with their lives

602

long-range goals

achievements that may take three to five years to accomplish; give direction and definition to our lives and serve to keep us on track so to speak

603

outer-directed people

people who let events, other people, or environmental factors dictate their behavior

604

parasympathetic nervous system

part of the autonomic nervous system that returns the body to its normal state after stress has subsided

605

self-actualization

being all that you can be; developing your full potential and experiencing fulfillment

606

short-range goals

take apart long range goals and reassemble the required activities into smaller, more manageable time segments. The time segments may be daily weekly monthly quarterly or yearly periods

607

stress

the body's response to mental and physical change

608

Intramuscular injection

given into a muscle; thigh, upper arm, hip, butt

609

Subcutaneous

  • given into the fat layer between the skin and muscle in the stomac, thigh or arm
  • 25 or 27 gauge
  • 5/8-inch-long needles
  • Insulin syringe: This holds a maximum of 1 mL of medicine. The syringe has markings from 10 to 100. The marking at 100 is the same as 1 mL. The marking at 50 is the same as ½ mL.
  • Tuberculin syringe: This syringe holds up to 1 mL of medicine. It has a needle that is slightly longer than an insulin syringe. The syringe is marked every 0.1 mL.
610

Intradermal

Anterior aspect of forearm, Upper chest, Upper back, Back of upper arm

3/8-3/4th

611

Z-tract

  • injected directly into muscle, it is called an intramuscular injection (IM). The Z-track method is a type of IM injection technique used to prevent tracking (leakage) of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue (underneath the skin).
  • Thigh & butt
  • 22 to 25 gauge thick
612

Identify syringe parts 1. Plunger and rubber stopper 2. Tip (slip and Luer-Lok)TM 3. Flange 4. Barrel

1.plunger is used to get medicine into and out of the syringe.

2.

3.

4.barrel holds the medicine and has markings on it like a ruler

613

tubex

a drug pre-filled glass cartridge syringe with attached sterile needle, which is inserted in a reusable stainless steel holder (now plastic). The needle protector is removed and is ready for immediate injection in the administration of a drug.

614

Carpuject

a syringe device for the administration of injectable fluid medication

615

Six Rights of Medication Administration

  1. Medication
  2. Route
  3. Time
  4. Client
  5. Dosage
  6. Documentation
616

routes of medication

  • oral route: swallowed by mouth as a pill, liquid, tablet or lozenge
  • rectal route: suppository inserted into the rectum
  • intravenous route: injected into vein with a syringe or into intravenous (IV) line
  • infusion: injected into a vein with an IV line and slowly dripped in over time
  • intramuscular route: injected into muscle through skin with a syringe
  • topical route: applied to skin
  • enteric: delivered directly into the stomach with a G-tube or J-tube
  • nasal: sprays or pumps that deliver drug into the nose
  • inhaled: inhaled through a tube or mask (e.g. lung medications)
  • otic: drops into the ear
  • ophthalmic: drops, gel or ointment for the eye
  • sublingual: under the tongue
  • buccal: held inside the cheek
  • transdermal: a patch on the skin
  • subcutaneous: injected just under the skin
617

HMO (Health Maintenance Organization):

  • you must use network providers
618

EPO (Exclusive Provider Organization):

you must use network providers - doctors, hospitals and other health care providers - that participate in the plan. The only exception is for emergency care

619

PPO (Preferred Provider Organization): With a PPO,

you receive more comprehensive benefits by using network providers - doctors, hospitals and other health care providers - that participate in the plan. You have the option of using non-network providers, but with a lower level of benefits and higher out-of-pocket costs.

620

The GIC also offers Indemnity Plans -

These plans offer access to any licensed doctor or hospital. Make sure that your provider accepts Medicare.

621

ICD-9-CM

  • a tabular list containing a numerical list of the disease code numbers in tabular form;
  • an alphabetical index to the disease entries; and
  • a classification system for surgical, diagnostic, and therapeutic procedures (alphabetic index and tabular list).
622

CPT

Current Procedural Terminology

623

HCPCS

Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System.

624

Direct mode of infectious transmission

Direct physical contact (body surface to body surface) between infected individual and susceptible host.

Examples: Influenza virus; Infectious mononucleosis; chlamydia.

Precautions: Hand hygiene; masks; condoms.

625

Droplet mode of infectious transmission

Via coughing or sneezing, or (in health care) during suctioning. Droplets are relatively large (>5 µm) and can be projected up to about one metre.

Examples: Meningococcus; influenza (though there is some debate); respiratory viruses.

Precautions: Masks; cover mouth; stand clear.

626

Indirect mode of infectious transmission

Infectious agent deposited onto an object or surface (fomite) and survives long enough to transfer to another person who subsequently touches the object.

Examples: RSV; Norwalk; rhinovirus; perhaps influenza.

Precautions: Sterilizing instruments; disinfecting surfaces and toys in school.

627

Airborne mode of infectious transmission

Transmission via aerosols (airborne particles <5µm) that contain organisms in droplet nuclei or in dusts. Can be spread via ventilation systems.

Examples: TB; measles; chickenpox; smallpox (and maybe influenza: controversial, as more likely via droplets).

Precautions: Masks; negative pressure rooms in hospitals.

628

Vehicle mode of infectious transmission

A single contaminated source spreads the infection (or poison). This can be a common source or a point source.

Examples

a) Point source: Food-borne outbreak from infected batch of food; cases typically cluster around the site (such as a restaurant)

b) Common source: The Listeriosis outbreak in Canada in 2008 was linked to a meat production facility in Ontario. It caused 20 cases across five provinces. Cases may be widely dispersed due to transport and distribution of the vehicle.

Precautions: Normal safety and disinfection standards. Deliberate contamination of Tylenol in 1982 led to the use of tamper-proof containers for medicines.

629

Vector-borne mode of infectious transmission

Transmission by insect or animal vectors.

Example: Mosquitoes – malaria vector, ticks – Lyme disease vector.

Precautions: Protective barriers (window screens, bed nets); insect sprays; culling animals

630

Tympanic Thermometers

(Ear) -.5* > than norm

631

Temporal Artery Thermometers

temple/forehead- .5* < than norm

632

Oral Thermometers

mouth - .5* < than norm

633

Axillary,

where you measure the temperature under the armpit - 99.4

634

Rectal

rectum - most accurate - .5* > than norm

635

The average normal oral temperature is

98.6°F (37°C).

636

Mensuration

the act of measuring

637

Apgar scores

a test to see the newborns well being

638

RAST

test is a type of blood test used to test for allergies

639

MAST

alcohol test


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